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Post by jdaddy on Jul 4, 2007 1:31:56 GMT -4
Something strange happened tonight at the free roll at the bar. A player bet making a bluff after the river came. And the person made two pair on the river called. As he made the call the bluffer said you win. So the winner mucked his hand into the pile and collected the chips. In the mean time the bluffer flips over his hand and argues that the chips are his. Yes the winner should have showed his hand but in tournament play does the bluffer's verbal concession "you win" constitute his hand being dead just like saying I fold?
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Post by Randy C on Jul 4, 2007 2:55:26 GMT -4
Hey Jay!
The verbal declaration is binding!
According to the Bicycle: Poker Official Rules and Games(2002):
"Announcement in Turn of Intention to Pass, Bet or Fold - If a player in turn announces that he passes, bets [OR] folds, his announcement is binding whether or not he discards his hand..."
When a player verbally declares his hand by saying, "You win", that clearly constitutes a verbal declaration of concession. And as you can see from the above rule, it matters NOT whether or not he mucks his hand.
For example, if a person makes a verbal bet, even in jest, by all accounts that player could be forced into putting the total amount of chips that he declared into the pot.
It is VERY important that poker players watch what they say because any and all "verbal declarations" are binding!
I hope this answers your question!
All In,
Randy C~
p.s. Also, It is NOT a requirement for a player to show his/her hand during any point in a hand if the other player folds. Analyzing the above, a "verbal declaration" whereby a player concedes their hand is legally "a fold", thus it would NOT be required for the winner to show their hand. Do you see the rationale?
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Post by klimpare on Jul 4, 2007 5:58:36 GMT -4
randy  i learn that you can say you win and if you dont mucked your card and the other guy muck his card he los you must show your card it has happen i sweden two  roger |
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Post by Randy C on Jul 4, 2007 7:26:10 GMT -4
Roger,
I'm quoting from the Bicycle Poker Rule Book. This isn't a guess on my part, I actually looked it up. It's on page 29 of: Bicycle: Poker Official Rules and Games(2002). You're welcome to check it out yourself.
All In,
Randy C~
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Post by jdaddy on Jul 4, 2007 13:48:19 GMT -4
Randy,
That's what I said!!!! But a lot of people were very adiment on that it happened before and the winning hand lost.
Thanks!!!!
I knew I was right lol
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Post by Randy C on Jul 4, 2007 17:19:38 GMT -4
No problem, Jay...Glad I could help! BTW, If anyone ever has a question on a rule or ruling in poker, please feel free to ask and I will do the best I can to find the answer within a reasonable amount of time. If I don't know the answer...I won't ever guess...I'll look it up and/or research it.
Also, I have a few books on poker rules, including the WSOP and WPT rules. So, anyone is encouraged to post a question and I will do my very best to get you the CORRECT answer.
All In,
Randy C~
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